Friday, September 18, 2009

Din Nimshach

Is it possible to say that by Rabbanan instituting the second day of RH, a ramification of its shem "yoma arichta" is tnat the judgment is continuous from sunrise of the first day until three hours into th second day? This would be helpful in explaining some Rosh Hashanah inyanimi.



  1. Rebbi I had a question which I could not get a satisfactory answer.

    Hashem said that Rosh Hashanah is one day, and that we are to fulfill the whole Torah while settled in eretz yisroel.

    That being the case, if it was impossible to let everyone know what day Rosh Hashanah is even for people in eretz yisroel (hence they keep two days today as well) when was Rosh Hashanah ever one day, and how was it done? And if it was done, why the second day in israel today?

    The two answers I got from people here was 1)they only had one day for the first 14 years in israel (conquest and distribution) since they were all together at that time (an answer I find extremely problimatic), and 2) that it was one day all the way until chazals time and they established the second day to be held even in israel.

    Are either of these two answers valid?

    Is there a source that discusses when this one-day to two-days shift happened?



  2. Ron-
    It may be discussed other places as well, but take a look in Meseches Beitzah, starting on the bottom of daf daled, amud beis.

  3. In Chu"l it would always have been two days, but the chiddush was that in EY it was also occasionally two days, but not as would be the case in a classic sfeika d'yoma, 30 elul and 1 tishrei, as in a two day RC, but as 1&2 tishrei - that's because the issue arose when witnesses DID come, but late in the day.