Monday, September 05, 2005

Typo in Meshech Chochmo

משך חכמה על דברים פרק יא פסוק לא
(לא) וירשתם אותה וישבתם בה - דעת הרמב"ן (ספר המצות מ"ע ד לרמב"ן) דישיבת ארץ ישראל בעשה. והרד"מ (חדושי רב דוב בער מייזליש לסה"מ שם) בחדושיו תמה ממה דדריש ר' שמלאי במסכת סוטה (דף יד) מ"מ נתאוה משה לכנוס לא"י כו' הרבה מצות כו' ואין מתקיים אלא בארץ כו'. ומאי מקשה, הלא ישיבת ארץ ישראל עשה היא בעצמה עיי"ש. ולק"מ, דלפי זה בני גד וב"ר לא יקיימו מצות ישיבת ארץ ישראל, ובודאי אינו כן, דקיימו גם בארץ סיחון ועוג מצוה זו, שזהו האמורי מה שאמר (במדבר ס"פ לג) והורשתם את הארץ וישבתם בה, וא"כ מדוע הי' משה מבקש לכנוס לארץ, ודאי כל זמן שלא הי' כבוש וחלוק בארץ היו מקיימים בזה ישיבת א"י. וזה פשוט

I think there's a typo in the last line.
נ"ל שיש טעה"ד בשורה האחרונה.

וצ"ל: ודאי כל זמן שלא הי' כבוש וחלוק בארץ [לא] היו מקיימים בזה ישיבת א"י


  1. I don't think it is a typo. To me the flow is as follows: the meshech chochma asks the question if yishuv ha'aretz is a mitzvhas aseh why does the gemara have to say there are many mizvos teluos b'aretz? We would immediately know why Moshe wanted to go there, for yishuv. Answer - Yishuv must be mekuyam outside the land, in the Eretz of Sichon and Og. That is why the gemarrah asks the question and why they answer with mitzvas teliuos bi'aretz and not yishuv. The meshech chochma then ends by emphasizing this point saying those living in eretz Sichon and Og were indeed mekayaim mitvahs yishuv ha'aretz all during the the time that it took bnei Israel to capture and divide the land.
    At least that is my reading of the selection.

  2. The Meshech Chochmo asks rhetorically how it is possible that Bnei Gad and Bnei Reuven did not want to live in EY:

    דלפי זה בני גד וב"ר לא יקיימו מצות ישיבת ארץ ישראל, ובודאי אינו כן, דקיימו גם בארץ סיחון ועוג מצוה זו

    But if there is no typo, they were only mekayem yeshivas EY for 14 years! And with that they were satisfied?!

  3. I understand the last sentence to mean that they, bnei gad, reuven and 1/2 menashe, were mikayem yeshuv EVEN during those 14 years. As I write this, though, I had the strange thought that maybe he is saying that all bnei yisreal were mikayem yehsuv during those 14 years through the settlement there. I would have trouble defending this though.

    To me either bnei gad etc. were mekayem yishuv starting from their kibush or not at all. Why would their yishuv ha'aretz kick in only after the remaining shvatim divided the land? On the other hand this may not be so shver, pehaps it was implicit in the tenai Moshe made with them. This argument could go either way.

    But if you say there is a typo - then how is does this discussion settle the meshech chochma's opening question? There is no kiyum yishuv in the lands of Og and Sichon. So then, what is bothering the gemarah? Isn't it obvious, Moshe wanted to mekayem yeshivas ha'aretz.

    Sorry for the stream of conscious.

  4. If the MC means to say that even during those 14 years BG and BR were makayem the mitzvah of yishuv ha'aretz, that means his original issue was that they were not mekayem it during those 14 years. This is such a big deal? Neither did the rest of Am Yisroel!

    I assumed l'chatchila like you suggest, that the tnai was me'akev the kiyum of BG and BR until everyone else was also mekayem.

    I understand the MC to be saying that als the mitzvah of yishuv ha'aretz, Moshe Rabbeinu only had to await kibbush v'chilluk and would then be makayem it ba'asher hu sham in Ever HaYarden. That was why he had to come on to the other mitzvos ha'teluyos ba'aretz to justify his request to reach the West Bank.

  5. I see what you are saying, but if there is a typo, I don't understand what is being conveyed by this last sentence. It is clear that yishuv ha'aretz is mekuyam in the land of BG and BR. It doesn't matter when, by staying there Moshe could be mekayaim yishuv ha'aretz. So we get to the last sentence:
    With a typo, I would render it as:
    If so, why did Moshe want to enter? it is clear that during the kibush and chiluk ha'aretz NO ONE was mekayaim yishuv ha'aretz.
    Are you saying this is coming to convey the notion that yishuv would be taken care of after the 14 years were over? Then, why phrase it as no-one was mekayim yishuv ha'aretz during this time? Just say "eventually Moshe would be mekayim it there".
    Without a typo it becomes:
    If so, why did Moshe want to enter? it is clear that during the kibush and chiluk ha'aretz THEY WERE mekayaim yishuv ha'aretz
    This now means: yishuv ha'aretz has already been settled, so why did Moshe want to enter - he could be mekayaim yishuv all during the time of Kibush. It must be for the other mitzvahs.
    Both these seem a bit forced to me, so to change tacks slightly:
    Perhaps the Gemarrah is saying not only that Moshe wanted to observe the mitzvahs himself, he wanted to be the agent responsible for the Chalos haChiuv of ALL the mitzvas telious ba'aretz on Bnei Yisrael. He already (partially?) accomplished this for yishuv by capturing the land of Sichon and Og. Perhaps one can understand the last sentence (without a typo?) as meaning that chalos of the chiuv for yishuv had been accomplished, and now Moshe wanted to finish the Chalos for the rest of the mitzvahs.

  6. I believe what you write at the end of your comments is a good mahalach by which to understand the Chazal. But it seems the MC did not understand it that way.